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Post by account_disabled on Jan 16, 2018 1:42:27 GMT -5
Hi, It is very significant that Barnabas, a Levite, had property to sell in the first place. as a Levite, it was against the Law for him to own property. we ought to ask ourselves how it came about that he did, and what it meant for him to be doing this, and why it is written for us in obvious conjunction with Ananias & Sapphira? is it likely that Ananias was also a Levite? I didn't find the right solution from the internet. References: christianchat.com/bible-discussion-forum/162249-ananias-levite.htmlFintech Explainer |
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